Is it correct to suggest that James VI of Scotland was not related to Queen Elizabeth I of England?

Okay, let's unravel the family tree here. Queen Elizabeth I, who reigned from 1558 to 1603, never married and had no children. This created a succession crisis because everyone was wondering who would take over the throne after her death. Now, James VI of Scotland was the son of Mary, Queen of Scots. Mary was Elizabeth's cousin. This makes James Elizabeth's first cousin twice removed. Because of this family connection, and after a lot of political maneuvering, James was chosen to succeed Elizabeth. So, when Elizabeth died in 1603, James VI of Scotland became James I of England, uniting the crowns of England and Scotland. That's why it's incorrect to say they weren't related; their family connection was actually crucial to British history! Some people might get confused because they focus on the fact that Elizabeth had no direct heirs, but it's important to remember that royal succession often relies on more distant family ties.