Is it true that all male adults were granted voting rights by The Bill of Rights in 1689?

The Bill of Rights in 1689 was a landmark document, but it's important to understand its limitations. It primarily focused on establishing the rights of Parliament and limiting the power of the monarchy after the Glorious Revolution. While it was a significant step towards a more democratic society, it certainly didn't grant voting rights to all male adults. The idea of universal suffrage, even just for men, was still a long way off. In 1689, voting rights were tied to property ownership and social status. Only a small percentage of the male population, primarily wealthy landowners, were eligible to vote. The Bill of Rights was more about preventing royal overreach and securing parliamentary power than expanding the electorate. It took centuries of reform, including the Reform Acts of the 19th century and beyond, to gradually broaden voting rights to include more and more of the population. So, while the Bill of Rights was important, thinking it gave all men the vote is a common misconception.
Think of the broad term 'all male adults'. They didn't have that comprehensive a scope back in 1689.