Which of the following statements is correct regarding the legal standing of rape?

The concept of marital rape has evolved significantly over time. Historically, the legal system in England and Wales operated under the presumption of "implied consent" within marriage. This meant that a husband was essentially considered to have irrevocable consent from his wife for sexual relations. However, this outdated and discriminatory view began to be challenged in the late 20th century as societal attitudes towards women's rights and bodily autonomy changed. Landmark legal cases and increasing awareness of domestic violence led to a gradual erosion of the marital rape exemption. It wasn't until 1991 that the House of Lords finally ruled that a husband could be charged with raping his wife, effectively removing the last vestiges of the implied consent doctrine. This ruling was a watershed moment, affirming that a woman's right to choose and consent to sexual activity is absolute, regardless of her marital status. Therefore, the statement that any man, including a husband, who forces a woman to have sex can be charged with rape is correct because it reflects the current legal position and recognizes the fundamental right of every individual to sexual autonomy.